Choice of valve prosthesis for mitral valve replacement
Contents1 Mechanical prosthesis is recommended for patients for mitral valve replacement2 Guideline from ACC/AHA in...
Clinical Questions -1
Contents1 What is the indication of Transvaginal ultrasound in this case of Hydatidiform mole ?2...
Image Question-24
Contents1 What is the diagnosis of Image?2 Bunch of Grapes sign3 Bunch of Grapes sign...
Endocrinology in Relation to Reproduction
Contents1 Corpus luteum of pregnancy secretes all except2 Which cell organelle is abundantly present in...
Metabolic Adaptations in Pregnancy
Contents1 All are true of carbohydrate metabolism in pregnancy except2 Not true of physiological changes...
The fetal membranes
Contents1 What describes chorion best2 Not a function of Amniotic fluid3 Not a feature of...
Mitral Valve – Surgical Considerations
Contents1 Stiffness of the valve decreases in the presence of –2 ALL are TRUE about...
The Placenta
Contents1 Thickness of placenta increases up to2 Not true of placenta3 Not a part of...
Ovarian Failure
Contents1 The most common genetic form of premature ovarian insufficiency ( POI) is2 Anti-ovarian antibodies...
Hypothalamo Pituitary Ovarian Axis
Contents1 True about Hypothalamo Pituitary Ovarian Axis is2 Most common group II ovulatory disorder is3...
Hypercalcemia
Hypercalcemia – when calcium concentration is >14 mg/dL, individuals may experience confusion, altered mental status, coma,…
Acetaminophen & Hepatic injury
Blood levels of acetaminophen correlate with severity of hepatic injury levels >300 μg/mL 4 h…
Medicine MCQs -1
Tay–Sachs disease is caused by a genetic mutation in -
Hexosaminidase A (alpha polypeptide)[ HEXA] is an enzyme that in humans is encoded by the HEXA gene, located on the 15th chromosome.
Tay–Sachs disease is caused by a genetic mutation in the HEXA gene
Tay–Sachs disease becomes apparent almost always by which month of life?
Tay–Sachs disease - disease becomes apparent in the first weeks and months of life, almost always by the fourth month
When both parents are carriers for Tay–Sachs disease there is how much % risk of giving birth to an affected child with each pregnancy?
Tay–Sachs disease is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder- when both parents are carriers, there is a 25% risk of giving birth to an affected child with each pregnancy
Tay–Sachs disease is caused by insufficient activity of the enzyme -
Tay–Sachs disease is caused by insufficient activity of the enzyme hexosaminidase A
Krabbe disease is caused by-
mutations in the
GALC gene located on chromosome 14
Autosomal recessive
Mutations in the GALC gene cause a deficiency of an enzyme called galactosylceramidase.
Mutations in the SMPD1 gene cause Niemann–Pick disease types A and B.
They produce a deficiency in the activity of the lysosomal enzyme acid sphingomyelinase which breaks down the lipid sphingomyelin
PGL4 syndrome is caused by mutation of -
PGL4 syndrome - due to SDHB mutations
SDHB gene provides instructions for making one of four subunits of the succinate dehydrogenase (SDH) enzyme.
Jordans anomaly shows persistent vacuolation of -
Jordans anomaly [Jordans bodies]- persistent vacuolation of granulocytes and monocytes in the peripheral blood and bone marrow.
ordans' anomaly is a characteristic finding in Chanarin-Dorfman syndrome and other neutral lipid storage diseases.
Associated with mutations in the PNPLA2 gene
Patient presented with clinical symptoms include bleeding problems and on examination found to have hepatosplenomegaly blood parameters shows thrombocytopenia, elevated bile acid with normal bilirubin, and mildly prolonged prothrombin time and elevated concentrations of ribitol, arabitol, and erythritol in urine sample. Which of the following is the possibility?
Transaldolase (TALDO) Deficiency
Clinical symptoms include-
Bleeding problems, hepatosplenomegaly, liver cirrhosis, thrombocytopenia, elevated bile acid with normal bilirubin, and mildly prolonged prothrombin time
The deficiency of TALDO enzyme is diagnosed by elevated concentrations of ribitol, arabitol, and erythritol in urine sample.
Which of the following is called as Vanishing white matter disease-
Vanishing white matter disease-
Childhood ataxia with central hypomyelination (CACH),
Genetic leukoencephalopathy due to mutations in EIF2B subunit mutations,
Extensive white matter involvement with cavitary changes.
Sea-blue histiocytes are seen in all of the following EXCEPT-
Sea-blue histiocytes is a secondary finding associated with -
myelodysplastic syndromes,
lymphomas,
chronic myelogenous leukemia,
idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura,
Niemann-Pick disease,
Norum disease
Sea-Blue histiocytosis
Synonyms
Inherited Lipemic Splenomegaly
Histiocytosis, sea-blue
Sea-Blue histiocyte disease
Cherry-red spot at macula is seen in all of the following cases EXCEPT -
Cherry-red spot at macula in Metabolic Storage Diseases:
Tay–Sachs disease
Farber disease
GM1 and GM2 gangliosidoses
Metachromatic leukodystrophy
Niemann–Pick disease
Sandhoff disease
Sialidosis
Taxonomy
Heart Failure -I
What is the commonest cause of heart failure?
Ischaemic heart disease - 35–40%
Cardiomyopathy (dilated) - 30–34% Hypertension - 15–20%
Weight loss of 4.5 kg in ............ days in response to treatment is a Framingham major criteria.
The Framingham criteria for the diagnosis of heart failure consists of the concurrent presence of either two major criteria or one major and two minor criteria.
Major criteria comprise the following:
Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
Weight loss of 4.5 kg in 5 days in response to treatment
Neck vein distention
Rales
Acute pulmonary edema
Hepatojugular reflux
S 3 gallop
Central venous pressure greater than 16 cm water
Circulation time of 25 seconds or longer
Radiographic cardiomegaly
Pulmonary edema, visceral congestion, or cardiomegaly at autopsy
Minor criteria (accepted only if they cannot be attributed to another medical condition) are as follows:
Nocturnal cough
Dyspnea on ordinary exertion
A decrease in vital capacity by one third the maximal value recorded
Pleural effusion
Tachycardia (rate of 120 bpm)
Hepatomegaly
Bilateral ankle edema
Licorice can worsen heart failure by -
Licorice can worsen heart failure by increasing blood pressure and promoting fluid retention.
Yohimbine can exacerbate heart failure by increasing blood pressure through -
Yohimbine can exacerbate heart failure by increasing blood pressure through alpha-2 adrenergic receptor antagonism
Which of the following stages of heart failure the patient belongs to when the patient has structural heart disorder, but no symptoms at any stage?
Stage A: People at high risk for developing HF in the future, but no functional or structural heart disorder Stage B: A structural heart disorder, but no symptoms at any stage Stage C: Previous or current symptoms of heart failure in the context of an underlying structural heart problem, but managed with medical treatment Stage D: Advanced disease requiring hospital-based support, a heart transplant, or palliative care
Heart failure cells are -
Heart failure cells are siderophages generated in the alveoli of the lungs of people with left heart failure or chronic pulmonary edema
Patients who achieve at least............. MET-minutes/week had lower heart failure
Recommended minimum by U.S. guidelines -
Patients who achieve at least 500 MET-minutes/week had lower heart failure
Which of the following should be used in those patients who still have symptoms while on an ACE-I or ARB, beta blocker, and a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist?
Sacubitril/valsartan should be used in those who still have symptoms while on an ACE-I or ARB, beta blocker, and a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist as it reduces the risks of cardiovascular mortality and hospitalization for heart failure by a further 4.7% (absolute risk reduction).
All of the following is used for risk Stratification in heart failure EXCEPT?
Framingham criteria for the diagnosis of heart failure
Tolvaptan antagonises which of the following receptor?
VAPTANS
Unselective (mixed V1A/V2)
Conivaptan
V1A selective (V1RA)
Relcovaptan
V1B selective (V3RA)
Nelivaptan
V2 selective (V2RA)
Lixivaptan
Mozavaptan
Satavaptan
Tolvaptan
Atrial fibrillation occurs in approximately ------------% of patients with heart failure.
Atrial fibrillation occurs in approximately 20% of patients with heart failure and causes further impairment of cardiac function
Medicine Review MCQs-XVI
Which of the following is Naturally occurring cysteine-rich antibacterial and antifungal polypeptides?
Defensins are naturally occurring cysteine-rich antibacterial and antifungal polypeptides
- 29–35 amino acids
Mast cells share features in common with which of the following cell?
Mast cells share features in common with - Basophils
- Histamine-containing granules
- High-affinity receptors for immunoglobulin E
All of the following are TRUE about Histamine EXCEPT -
Histamine - constitutes 10% of the mast cell’s weight
IgM is a useful diagnostic test for -
- IgM is a useful diagnostic test for recent infection.
- IgG dominates in the second exposure to antigen
CD4+ T cells also known as -
T helper cells-
- assist other lymphocytes, including maturation of B cells into plasma cells and memory B cells,
- activation of cytotoxic T cells and macrophages.
- These cells are also known as CD4+ T cells as they express the CD4 glycoprotein on their surfaces.
IgA2 concentration are higher in -
IgA exists in two isotypes, IgA1 and IgA2.
They are both heavily glycosylated proteins.
While IgA1 predominates in serum (~80%),
IgA2 percentages are higher in secretions than in serum (~35% in secretions)
Which of the following vasculitis caused by deposits of IgA?
Henoch–Schönlein purpura - Known as IgA vasculitis - is a disease of the skin, mucous membranes
All of the following are vasculitis where mostly small vessels are affected EXCEPT -
According to the size of the vessel affected, vasculitis can be classified into:
- Large vessel: Takayasu's arteritis, Temporal arteritis
- Medium vessel: Buerger's disease, Kawasaki disease, Polyarteritis nodosa
- Small vessel: Behçet's syndrome, Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis, Cutaneous vasculitis, granulomatosis with polyangiitis, Henoch–Schönlein purpura, and microscopic polyangiitis.
Which is the most commonly implicated drug in causing Linear IgA bullous dermatosis?
Most commonly implicated drug - Vancomycin
All of the following are TRUE Light-chain multiple myeloma EXCEPT -
Light-chain multiple myeloma is a less frequent type of multiple myeloma with a more aggressive course and poorer prognosis.
It is characterized by the inability of the malignant plasma cells to produce heavy chains, resulting in the exclusive production of light chains. Therefore, no M-spike is visible in serum protein electrophoresis.
Exclusive production of light chains No M-spike is visible in serum protein electrophoresis.
Hematology MCQs-I
Criteria for AMML is confirmed if the myleoblasts and promonocytes in the bone marrow are greater than ?
Criteria for AMML is confirmed if the myleoblasts and promonocytes in the bone marrow are greater than 20 percent.
All of the following are TRUE about AML EXCEPT -
AML is slightly more common in men, with a male-to-female ratio of 1.3:1
Acute promyelocytic leukemia has the highest curability
Auer rods are seen in -
Auer rods [also called Auer bodies] - are large, crystalline cytoplasmic inclusion bodies observed in myeloid blast cells -
- acute myeloid leukemia,
- acute promyelocytic leukemia,
- high-grade myelodysplastic syndromes
- myeloproliferative disorders.
Which cytogenetic abnormalities in pediatric and adult B-ALL shows favorable prognosis?
Hyperdiploidy (>50 chromosomes) in B-ALL Shows Favorable prognosis
Which is the commonest malignancy in pediatrics age group?
Most common types of cancer are leukemias, followed by brain and other CNS tumors, lymphomas, neuroblastoma, kidney tumors
Leukemias, which are cancers of the bone marrow and blood, are the most common childhood cancers. They account for about 28% of all cancers in children. The most common types in children are acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) and acute myeloid leukemia (AML)
Which is TRUE for Philadelphia chromosome EXCEPT ?
All cases of CML are positive for BCR-ABL1
Fusion gene BCR-ABL1 - coding for a hybrid protein: a tyrosine kinase signalling protein that is "always on", causing the cell to divide uncontrollably by interrupting the stability of the genome and impairing various signaling pathways governing the cell cycle.
Blast crisis in CML is diagnosed if -
Blast crisis in CML is diagnosed if -
>20% blasts in the blood or bone marrow
The presence of an extramedullary proliferation of blasts
What is the test of choice in adults to distinguish CML from Leukemoid reaction?
Philadelphia chromosome is translocation between chromosomes -
Philadelphia chromosome -Ph1 (a reciprocal translocation of chromosomal material between chromosomes 9 and 22)
BCR/ABL mutation
Hepatitis C virus (HCV) is considered as a riskfactor of -
Both the hepatitis B virus (HBV) and hepatitis C virus (HCV) have been implicated in the pathogenesis of chronic lymphocytic leukemia
Image Question-12
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What is the Probable diagnosis of the slide?
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Image Question-14
Analyzing profile ...
What is the Probable diagnosis of the slide?
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Medicine Review MCQs-XV
Which is the richest food source of Vitamin A?
Vitamin A
The richest food source is liver,
Also found in milk, butter, cheese, egg yolks and fish oils.
Beta-carotene is the main carotenoid found in green vegetables, carrots and other yellow and red fruits.
Other carotenoids, lycopene and lutein,
All of the following are unoxygenated (oxygen free) carotenoids EXCEPT ?
Carotenoids with molecules containing oxygen, such as lutein and zeaxanthin, are known as xanthophylls
The unoxygenated (oxygen free) carotenoids such as α-carotene, β-carotene, and lycopene, are known as carotenes. Carotenes typically contain only carbon and hydrogen (i.e., are hydrocarbons),
Which is the most common form of vitamin -B12 used in dietary supplements
Cyanocobalamin is the most common form used in dietary supplements and food fortification because cyanide stabilizes the molecule against degradation.
Which of the following is given in cyanide poisoning?
Hydroxocobalamin
Injected intravenously for the purpose of treating cyanide poisoning, as the hydroxyl group is displaced by cyanide, creating a non-toxic cyanocobalamin that is excreted in urine.
Pernicious anemia characterised by the presence of antibodies to ?
Pernicious anemia-
characterised by stomach atrophy and the presence of antibodies to parietal cells and intrinsic factor
Which is TRUE regarding autoantibodies in Pernicious anemia?
Around 85% of PA patients have parietal cell antibodies, which means they are a sensitive marker for the disease.
Intrinsic factor antibodies are much less sensitive than parietal cell antibodies, but they are much more specific.
Increase in blood levels of Methylmalonic acid and Homocysteine suggests?
Methylmalonic acid and homocysteine - metabolic products that can be measured in the blood.
Increase in the levels of both helps differentiate between vitamin B12 deficiency and folic acid deficiency.
homocysteine alone increases in the Folic acid deficiency.
Which of the following is false for Pernicious anemia?
H. pylori and Zollinger-Ellison syndrome may also cause a form of nonautoimmune gastritis that can lead to pernicious anemia
Diphyllobothrium latum causes --------------- deficiency in humans
Diphyllobothrium latum causes B12 deficiency in humans. >br> Diphyllobothrium latum absorbs around 80% of dietary B12
Administration of which anesthesia can precipitate subacute combined degeneration in people with subclinical vitamin B12 deficiency?
Through oxidation, nitrous oxide inactivates vitamin B12.
In its inactive form, vitamin B12 is unable to function as a co-factor for methionine synthase and methylmalonyl coA mutase.
Methionine synthase converts homocysteine into methionine, which is necessary for the production of myelin proteins, while also converting 5-methyl-tetrahydrofolate into tetrahydrofolate, which is necessary for DNA synthesis.
Image Question-15
Analyzing profile ...
What is the Likely Diagnosis?
Image Courtesy S Bhimji MD
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Medicine Review MCQs-XIV
Microscopy of a patient blood smear shows Slightly larger RBCs with Grey blue colour on Gimsa stain preparation. what are those cells?
Poikilocytosis is the term for abnormally shaped red blood cells in the blood. Poikilocytes may be flat, elongated, teardrop-shaped, crescent-shaped, sickle-shaped, or may have pointy projections, or other abnormal features.
Polychromasia is a disorder where there is an abnormally high number of immature red blood cells found in the bloodstream as a result of being prematurely released from the bone marrow during blood formation.These cells are often shades of grayish-blue.
Codocytes are most commonly seen in -
Target cells are also called codocytes.
Codocytes-Most commonly seen in thalassemia, which are due to impaired production of hemoglobin (Hb).
Image shows Supravital stain of a smear of human blood from a patient with hemolytic anemia. What is the cell marked by arrow?
By Ed Uthman, MD, pathologist, Houston, Texas, USA - Own work, CC BY 3.0, https://commons.wikimedia.org/w/index.php?curid=12209264
Supravital stain of a smear of human blood :
From a patient with hemolytic anemia.
The reticulocytes are the cells with the dark blue dots and curved linear structures (reticulum) in the cytoplasm.
Hereditary spherocytosis is most commonly due to mutations in genes that code for -
spectrin (alpha and beta), ankyrin, band 3 protein, protein 4.2
Hereditary Spherocytosis autosomal recessive inheritance usually account for -
Recessive inheritance may account for 20-25% of all HS cases
Which is the condition where cell marked in the IMAGE is seen most commonly ?
By Dr Graham Beards - Own work, CC BY-SA 3.0, https://commons.wikimedia.org/w/index.php?curid=20526635
Target cells (codocytes): Most commonly seen in thalassemia.
Normal Hb has two alpha, and two beta chains, a decrease in alpha chains is alpha thalassemia, a decrease in beta chains is beta-thalassemia.
Target cells appear in association with the following conditions: Liver disease: Lecithin—cholesterol acyltransferase (LCAT) activity may be decreased in obstructive liver disease. Alpha-thalassemia and beta-thalassemia Hemoglobin C Disease Iron deficiency anemia Post-splenectomy Autosplenectomy
Amino acid substitution of lysine for glutamic acid at position six of the beta hemoglobin chain results in which of the following?
Hemoglobin S- coding of valine instead of glutamate in position 6 of the hemoglobin beta chain
Howell–Jolly body are seen in most commonly which of the following condition ?
Howell–Jolly body is a cytopathological finding of basophilic nuclear remnants (clusters of DNA) in circulating erythrocytes
Spleens are also removed for therapeutic purposes in conditions like hereditary spherocytosis, trauma to the spleen, and autosplenectomy caused by sickle cell anemia.
Myelodysplastic syndrome can transform into which of the following?
Myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) often transforms into acute myeloid leukemia [AML].
Transformation of MDS into acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) is extremely rare.
In Myelodysplastic syndrome if Bone-marrow myeloblasts rises over ---------% it is considered transformation to acute myelogenous leukemia [WHO] ?
Overall percentage of bone-marrow myeloblasts rises over a particular cutoff (20% for WHO and 30% for FAB), then transformation to acute myelogenous leukemia (AML) is said to have occurred.
Reticulocyte index for a healthy individual should be in range?
Reticulocyte index (RI) should be between 0.5% and 2.5% for a healthy individual.
Medicine Review MCQs-XIII
All of the following are CORRECT for Bernard–Soulier syndrome EXCEPT -
Bernard–Soulier syndrome
Low platelet count
Bernard–Soulier syndrome -caused by a deficiency of the glycoprotein Ib-IX-V complex (GPIb-IX-V), the receptor for von Willebrand factor
What is the Marked structure in Image?
By WVSOM_Megakaryocytes.JPG: Wbensmithderivative work: Icewalker cs (talk) - WVSOM_Megakaryocytes.JPG, CC BY 3.0, https://commons.wikimedia.org/w/index.php?curid=15216382 - Medicine Question Bank
Megakaryocytes in bone marrow -marked with arrows
Platelet-producing megakaryocytes go through ................during cell differentiation
Platelet-producing megakaryocytes go through endomitosis during cell differentiation
Megakaryocytes are derived from ................... stem cell
Megakaryocytes are derived from hematopoietic stem cell precursor cells in the bone marrow. They are produced primarily by the liver, kidney, spleen, and bone marrow.
The primary signal for megakaryocyte production is -
The primary signal for megakaryocyte production is thrombopoietin
sufficient but not absolutely necessary for inducing differentiation of progenitor cells in the bone marrow towards a final megakaryocyte phenotype.
All of the following include Lymphoid cells EXCEPT -
Lymphoid cells include T cells, B cells, natural killer cells, and innate lymphoid cells.
Clock Face Nucleus seen in -
Plasma cell nucleus - cartwheel or clock face arrangement
Reed-Sternberg cells seen in -
Hodgkin lymphoma characteristically presents with Hodgkin and Reed-Sternberg cells.
When the cells are mononucleated, they are called Hodgkin cells.
When they are multinucleated, they are called Reed-Sternberg cells.
Owl’s Eye Appearance nucleus seen in -
Owl's eye appearance of the Lentiform nucleus of the basal ganglia seen on head CT scan images of patients with -
Cerebral hypoxia
Medicine Review MCQs -XII
Asbestosis can cause all of the following EXCEPT -
Asbestosis can cause - Lung cancer, Mesothelioma, and Pulmonary heart disease.
More than ------- % of people affected with asbestosis develop plaques in the parietal pleura
>50%
The commonest manifestation of asbestos exposure is pleural disease, including pleural plaques and diffuse pleural thickening (DPT). Malignant mesothelioma of the pleura and DPT are less common than plaques,
Which of the following patients are particularly susceptible to tuberculosis
Patients with silicosis are particularly susceptible to tuberculosis
Chalicosis is a form of pneumoconiosis caused by the inhalation of fine particles of stone -
Chalicosis is a form of pneumoconiosis affecting the lungs or bronchioles, found chiefly among
Ferruginous body is a histopathologic finding in interstitial lung disease suggestive of ?
Ferruginous body is a histopathologic finding in interstitial lung disease suggestive of - Asbestosis
Ferruginous body - appear as small brown nodules in the septum of the alveolus. Ferruginous bodies are typically indicative of asbestos inhalation (when the presence of asbestos is verified they are called "asbestos bodies")
Caplan's syndrome is a combination of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) with -
Caplan's syndrome is a combination of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) with Pneumoconiosis
Anthracosis a form of
Coal workers' pneumoconiosis, severe state, develops after the initial, milder form of the disease known as anthracosis
Anthracosis - Asymptomatic and is found to at least some extent in all urban dwellers due to air pollution.
Asbestosis causes all EXCEPT -
As the fibrosis progresses, a number of more definite findings are seen, which continue to be particularly subpleural and lower lung zone in distribution. They include:
-parenchymal bands
-traction bronchiectasis
-honeycomb fibrosis
In which of the following pleural plaques are pathognomonic on X-ray?
Pleural plaques are pathognomonic on X-ray - Asbestosis
All of the following are found in Silicosis EXCEPT -
Ferruginous body - Small brown nodules in the septum of the alveolus
What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis of X-RAY?
Silicosis - Egg shell calcification
Ferruginous body are found in which anatomical location?
Ferruginous body -Small brown nodules in the septum of the alveolus
Medicine Review MCQs -XI
The drug of choice of cryptococcal meningitis -
[AI -1995]
Induction therapy - Amphotericin B
Tropical spastic paraparesis is caused by -
[AIIMS -2015]
Tropical spastic paraparesis - causes weakness, muscle spasms, and sensory disturbance
Causative agent - Human T-lymphotropic virus [HTLV] resulting in paraparesis
All of the following are TRUE about Ramsay hunt syndrome EXCEPT -
Palatal myoclonus is a rapid spasm of the palatal (roof of the mouth) muscles - due to lesions of the central tegmental tract (which connects the red nucleus to the ipsilateral inferior olivary nucleus). Uniquely, the clicking noise does not subside when the patient sleeps.
All of the following are TRUE about Palatal Myoclonus EXCEPT -
Palatal myoclonus-
Rapid spasm of the palatal (roof of the mouth) muscles, which results in clicking or popping in the ear.
Movements of the palate vary in rate between 40 and 200 beats per minute.
Chronic clonus is often due to lesions of the central tegmental tract (which connects the red nucleus to the ipsilateral inferior olivary nucleus).
Uniquely, the clicking noise does not subside when the patient sleeps.
CSF glucose level is approximately ---------- of Plasma glucose
The glucose level in CSF is proportional to the blood glucose level and corresponds to 60-70% of the concentration in blood.
Normal CSF glucose levels - 45–80 mg/dL
All of the following are TRUE about Cryptococcal neoformans EXCEPT -
AIDS-associated cryptococcosis account for 85% of all patients diagnosed with cryptococcosis
P carinii pneumonia (PCP) the recommended secondary prophylaxis is -
P carinii pneumonia (PCP), the recommended secondary prophylaxis is trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
Subdural Empyema is most commonly caused by -
Subdural Empyema most commonly involves -
About 95% of subdural empyemas are located within the cranium
Most subdural empyemas involve the frontal lobe
5% involve the spinal neuraxis.
Commonest cause of Subdural Empyema in cases secondary to cranial trauma -
Commonest cause of Subdural Empyema - cases secondary to cranial trauma or surgical procedures -
- Staphylococcus aureus
